Government Jobs & GK 2016-17

Tuesday, September 27, 2016

National Defence Academy (NDA) Exam

National Defence Academy (NDA) Exam of the year 2008 held on dated 17-08-2008. We are giving 25 questions of English of this exam with answers. These questions not only develop of your I.Q. but will useful for upcoming government exams also.

SYNONYMS

Directions—(Q. 1–9) In this section, each of the following nine items consists of a word in CAPITAL LETTERS, followed by four words. Select the word that is most similar in MEANING to the bold word in CAPITAL LETTERS.

1. PERPLEX(A) Distract (B) Intrigue (C) Perspective (D) Baffle

2. HOSPITABLE(A) Convivial (B) Liberal (C) Congential (D) Welcoming

3. GAIETY(A) Dexterity (B) Wonder (C) Colourfulness (D) Jollity

4. SCARCELY
(A) Hardly (B) Always (C) Sometimes (D) Frequently

5. COUNTERFEIT
(A) Imitated (B) Duplicate (C) Fake (D) Foreign

6. DAZED
(A) Shocked (B) Dreamy (C) Happy (D) Tired

7. DISDAIN
(A) Disown (B) Condemn (C) Hate (D) Criticise

8. BEWITCHING
(A) Enchanting (B) Magical (C) Affected (D) Ensnaring

9. RAPACITY
(A) Anger (B) Cruelty (C) Pride (D) Greed

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions—(Q. 10–17) In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S) to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and indicate your correct response accordingly. Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.

Z. It is well-known that / the effect (P)/is very bad (Q)/ on children (R)/ of cinema (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P S R Q (B) S P Q R (C) S R P Q (D) Q S R P

Explanation :The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad”. This is indicated by the sequence P S R Q and so (A) is the correct answer.

10. It is a privilege / to pay tax (P)/ of every citizen (Q)/ as well as the duty (R)/ who is well-placed (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) R P S Q (B) S P R Q (C) R Q S P (D) S Q R P

11. It is not good / of the wicked persons (P)/ to overthrow (Q)/ to accept the help (R)/ the righteous persons. (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) R S Q P (B) Q S R P (C) R P Q S (D) Q P R S

12. Life is judged / and not by (P)/ of work done (Q)/ the longevity of years (R)/ by the quality. (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) Q S P R (B) S Q R P (C) Q S R P (D) S Q P R

13. When he learns that (P)/ you have passed the examination (Q)/ in the first division (R)/ your father will be delighted (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) Q P S R (B) S P Q R (C) Q R S P (D) S R Q P

14. The journalist (P)/ saw (Q)/ countless number of the dead (R)/ driving across the field of battle (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P Q S R (B) P Q R S (C) P S Q R (D) S R Q P

15. Jane planned (P)/ some stamps (Q)/ to buy (R)/ this afternoon (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P R Q S (B) P S Q R (C) Q R P S (D) Q S P R

16. Her mother / when she was (P)/ hardly four years old (Q)/ began to teach to Neha (R)/ English (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) R S Q P (B) S R P Q (C) R S P Q (D) S R Q P

17. Bill had (P)/ a friend (Q)/ an appointment (R)/ to meet (S)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P S R Q (B) P R S Q (C) Q S R P (D) Q R S P

ANTONYMS

Directions—(Q. 18–26) In this section, each of the following nine items consists of a word in CAPITAL LETTERS, followed by four words. Select the word that is FARTHEST in MEANING to the bold word in CAPITAL LETTERS.
18. EPHEMERAL
(A) Temporal (B) Stable (C) Permanent (D) Earthly

19. OBLIGATORY
(A) Doubtful (B) Voluntary (C) Sincerely (D) Faithfully

20. CIRCUMSPECT
(A) Careless (B) Pusillanimous (C) Reticent (D) Hostile

21. OBSCURE(A) Suitable (B) Apt (C) Thalamus (D) Clear

22. REPULSIVE
(A) Attractive (B) Colourful (C) Unattractive (D) Striking

23. KINDLED
(A) Extinguished (B) Reduced (C) Weakened (D) Ignited

24. VITAL
(A) Trivial (B) Peripheral (C) Optional (D) Superficial

25. PENURY
(A) Education (B) Laziness (C) Wealth (D) Ignorance

26. INHIBIT
(A) Pamper (B) Breed (C) Accept (D) Promote

COMPREHENSION

Directions—(Q. 27–37) In this section, you have four short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a passage, and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ are solved for you.

PASSAGE (Example)

In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.

I. The author’s main point is that
(A) different forms of life are found on earth
(B) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(C) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(D) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life

J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s position ?
(A) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(B) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace
(C) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(D) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death

Explanation :
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is “peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings”, which is response (C). So (C) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is “The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (B). So (B) is the correct answer.

PASSAGE I

We have built up an energy intensive society such that hundreds of daily acts are dependent on having energy at our ready command. Most of that energy comes from fossil fules. Yet, within two centuries we will have used up nearly all of the fossil fuel that has been built up over millions of years of earth time. Furthermore, the extraction and consumption of fossil fuels is a major polluter of our environment. Our appetite for energy is seemingly insatiable. We are now searching for it in different places and using methods that inevitably upset and pollute the environment. Since fossil energy will soon be gone we are searching for alternative sources.

27. Today we are dependent on energy for everything. What is the most likely factor that contributes to this situation ?
(A) Sufficient quantity of energy is available at present
(B) We have developed a society which makes intensive use of energy
(C) Energy is most convenient and easy to use
(D) We have no alternatives

28. The author seems to disapprove further extraction and consumption of fossil fuels. Which of the following is the most likely reason for that ?
(A) Further extraction of fossil fuel is a costly affair
(B) Further extraction and consumption of fossil fuel may lead to conflict between countries
(C) We do not have the technical know-how for further extraction of fossil fuels
(D) Further extraction and consumption of fossil fuels will lead to worldwide environmental pollution.

29. According to the author, we are searching for alternative sources of energy. What is the most likely reason for this ?
(A) Alternative sources of energy are cheaper
(B) It is feared that fossil energy will soon be exhausted
(C) A number of alternative energy sources are easily available
(D) Alternative sources of energy will not cause any environmental problems

PASSAGE II

Books are by far, the most lasting product of human effort. Temples crumble into ruins, pictures and statues decay, but books survive. Time does not destroy the great thoughts which are as fresh today as when they first passed through their author’s minds ages ago. The only effect of time has been to throw out of currency the bad products, for nothing in literature can long survive but what is really good and of lasting value. Books introduce us into the best society; they bring us into the presence of the greatest minds that have ever lived, we hear what they said and did; we see them as if they were really alive, we sympathise with them, enjoy with them and grieve with them.

30. According to the passage, books live for ever because—
(A) they have productive value
(B) time does not destroy great thoughts
(C) they are in printed form
(D) they have the power to influence people

31. According to the passage, temples, pictures and statues belong to the same category because—
(A) all of them are beautiful
(B) all of them are substantial
(C) all of them are likely to decay
(D) all of them are fashioned by men

32. “Lasting value” in the passage means—
(A) something which has survived the passage of time
(B) something which has been lost with the passage of time
(C) something which has relevance for the present
(D) something which had relevance for the past

PASSAGE III

The pre-historic man preferred this area as three of his primary needs—water, raw material for tool making and game in the thick jungles, were available here in plenty. Mr. Sharma found sites on top of hills where huge boulders have been cut flat. These flat rocks were found in the round formation. Probably they sat on these and there was a fire in the middle. It was also a site where the tools were made. It was like a national pastime. They made tools to throw at animals. There was little chance of killing them with one tool. Mr. Sharma says there are strong chances of finding fossils in the area.

33. Mr. Sharma is most probably working as—
(A) a Civil Engineer
(B) a Geographer
(C) an Archaeologist
(D) a Tourist officer

34. “There was little chance of killing them with one tool” implies that—
(A) the animals were too clever
(B) the men did not know how to hunt
(C) the tools were not sophisticated enough
(D) the hunters wanted to use more than one tool

35. Which of the following does not describe the activities of the man as mentioned in the passage ?
(A) Hunting animals
(B) Lighting fires
(C) Cutting stones
(D) Cultivating land

PASSAGE IV

A whole generation of Indians gave up everything and spent their lives in fighting in British in Gandhi’s way without hurting, without violence, without hatred. The hope that India would one day be free kept them going through very difficult times and gave them courage. When millions of people want the same thing very much, it is a great force which even the most powerful army cannot oppose.

36. The demand for freedom became a ‘great force’. What is the most likely reason for it ?
(A) Great leaders gave the call for freedom
(B) Millions of people wanted to get freedom
(C) The British rule did not permit any freedom
(D) Freedom is a noble ideal

37. Which is the ‘most powerful army’ referred to in the passage ?
(A) The powerful army of the Government of India
(B) The powerful army of the British
(C) Any powerful army fighting against the wishes of millions of people
(D) The army formed by the freedom fighters

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions—(Q. 38–42) (i) In this Section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are in three separate parts and each one is labeled (A), (B) and (C). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the parts (A), (B) or (C), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (D) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Examples ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you.
P. The young child (A)/ singed (B)/ a very sweet song. (C) No error (D)
Q. We worked (A)/ very hard (B)/ throughout the season. (C) No error (D)

Explanation :In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter under this part is (B); so (B) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (D) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain any error.

38. I informed the principal (A)/ that I was running temperature (B)/ and therefore could not attend the meeting. (C) No error (D)

39. The lady was broken with grief (A)/ when she heard the sad news of the train disaster (B)/ in which her brother was killed. (C) No error (D)

40. The farmer is irrigating (A)/ his fields (B)/ since morning. (C) No error (D)

41. I could not (A)/ answer to (B)/ the question. (C) No error (D)

42. Two years passed (A)/ since (B)/ my cousin died. No error (D)

ORDERING OF SENTENCES

Directions—(Q. 43–50) In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and indicate your correct answer accordingly.

Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
X. S₁ : There was a boy named Jack.
S₆ : At last she turned him out of the house.
P : So the mother asked him to find work.
Q : They were very poor.
R : He lived with his mother.
S : But Jack refused to work.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) R Q P S
(B) P Q R S
(C) Q P R S
(D) R P S Q

Explanation :
The correct sequence in this example is R Q P S which is marked by (A). Therefore, (A) is the correct answer.

43. S₁ : When you have to study for examination, you have many things to do.
S₆ : The final aim, of course, is to pass the examination that is two months away.
P : Suppose you have only two months to do it.
Q : The time-table tells you what you have to do everyday and for how many hours.
R : You have to read a number of books, learn tables and formulas.
S : Then the best way is to make a time-table for yourself.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) R P S Q
(B) S R Q P
(C) Q R S P
(D) P S Q R

44. S₁ : The umpire has to do a lot of hard work before qualifying to surpervise a match.
S₆ : So an umpire must keep abreast of time and apply the rules as occasion demands.
P : However, umpires are human and are sometimes prone to make mistakes.
Q : The rules of the game are being constantly changed.
R : The players should gracefully and sportingly accept these mistakes.
S : He is aware of the responsibilities that go with the job.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) Q R R S
(B) S P R Q
(C) S R P Q
(D) Q R P S

45. S₁ : Mohan came to the city to meet a friend.
S₆ : He should not have behaved so rudely
P : Mohan asked her to join them for tea.
Q : Mohan’s friend who had some grudge against Shiela quickly got up and left the restaurant without saying a word.
R : While they were having tea at a restaurant Sheila, a former fellow student of theirs, came in.
S : Though Sheila knew Mohan’s friend was a bad fellow, she accepted the invitation.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P R S Q
(B) R P S Q
(C) P R Q S
(D) R P Q S

46. S₁ : When the Romans invaded Britain about 2,000 years ago, their calendar was calculated on the phases of the moon.
S₆ : The astronomer’s name was Sosigenes and his calendar had a year of 365 days.
P : This calender had gradually become so out of line with the seasons that it was two or three months behind.
Q : The Emperor Julius Caesar was determined to correct it.
R : Caesar had been to Egypt and seen the advantages of a calender which used only the sun.
S : So he sought help from a Greek astronomer who lived in the Egyptian city of Alexandria.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) R Q P S
(B) P Q R S
(C) P S R Q
(D) R S P Q

47. S₁ : Education is in great demand today in India.
S₆ : Things have changed considerably now.
P : These people were accustomed to applying their intelligence to the profession of their fathers.
Q : Since independence it has spread to backward classes.
R : They had no idea that they could train themselves to do something else.
S : Besides this training they had little book learning.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P Q R S
(B) Q P R S
(C) P Q S R
(D) Q P S R

48. S₁ : There was once a king in India
S₆ : The three sons did not know what to do and where to go.
P : The captain of the king’s army wanted the kingdom for himself.
Q : He died leaving three sons.
R : The eldest of the three sons would have become the king.
S : So he drove the three sons away and took everything in the kingdom in his possession.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) P R Q S
(B) P S Q R
(C) Q S P R
(D) Q R P S

49. S₁ : An old man died and left his son a lot of money.
S₆ : He became sad and lonely.
P : Soon he had nothing left.
Q : The son was a foolish young man.
R : All his friends left him.
S : He quickly spent all his money.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) S Q R P
(B) Q S P R
(C) S Q P R
(D) Q S R P

50. S₁ : Siberian crane is a migratory bird
S₆ : They return to Siberia at the onset of summer in India.
P : They remain here for fourfive months.
Q : Migrating birds are those which travel to other places for a period of time and then return.
R : They can’t sustain in the severe winter of Siberia.
S : So during winters they travel thousands of miles to reach the bird sanctuary in Rajasthan in India.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(A) Q R S P
(B) Q P S R
(C) S R Q P
(D) S P Q R

Answers with Explanation1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C) 06. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (B)
18. (C) ‘Ephemeral’ means ‘short lived’.
19. (B) ‘Obligatory’ means ‘required to be done’.
20. (A) ‘Circumspect’ means ‘cautious’.
21. (D) ‘Obscure’ means ‘hidden’.
22. (A) ‘Repulsive’ means ‘unattractive’.
23. (A) ‘Kindled’ means ‘to set alight’.
24. (A) ‘Vital’ means ‘important’.
25. (C) ‘Penury’ means ‘poverty’.
26. (D) ‘Inhibit’ means ‘restrain’.
27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (D)
37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (B)
47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (C)

Sunday, September 25, 2016

Sample Role-play Interview Questions

Role-plays are considered opportunities to prove that you possess all the key interpersonal skills you have mentioned in your resume. They help employers to assess how you'll react in certain situations. During a role-play, the interviewer assumes the role of a customer/client and asks you to sell him an idea or a product.

Questions like "why should I go with your company?" "What advantages can you offer me?" or "Why are your products so highly-priced when <rival company’s name> delivers the same products at such an inexpensive price?” are commonly asked.

Preparation

In role-play questions, it’s always advisable to have a detailed knowledge of the company beforehand. Collect as much information on the company’s policies, recent achievements, their closest competitors’ best-selling products, etc.

Teamwork

In some cases, the role-play may feature a group role-playing exercise. In these situations, try your best to be an efficient team-leader but don’t try to dominate. Try to get a balance between listening and speaking.

Composure

Be calm and composed under every situation. Don’t laugh or embarrass people who couldn’t satisfactorily participate in the role-play activity.

Sample Role-play Interview Questions

Q1 − Sell me this pen.

Q2 − Introduce yourself as a kitchen gadget.

Q3 − Create a “bits-and-pieces” organization from your pocket(s).

Q4 − Listen to our conversation and repeat our preferences.

Q5 − Create a metaphorical or symbolic representation of yourself from the following items −

Pairs of scissors
Nuts and bolts
Screw-drivers
Small children's toys
Coins

Normally used as an introductions icebreaker, it limits the purpose of an introduction to a simple outline of each person's self. The activity expands naturally to greater duration if more thinking and discussion/review time is encouraged by the facilitator.

How To Prepare For Written Examination

To Crack any of the competitive exam is the tough problem between the dream and reality of gaining life time success. Aspirants who are preparing for any of the competitive exam and looking for some helpful tips to crack the examination, here on this page, they can get the tricks about How to prepare for written examinationare very helpful for you to crack Any Exam.

Know about how to crack any written exam becomes easy if you have capability to use or follow the tips on your habit specially in case of scheduling and the routine that you may or may not follow on daily basis. At present almost every government or private organization takes entrance test / written test as well as interview to select candidates for any of the post. Those aspirants who are going for any of the competitive or interview examination they have to prepare well for it.

Written tests are based on knowledge, working skills, and abilities to learn that are required for a post. Candidates should make a proper study schedule that can boost their chance to get success and should keep themselves continuously motivated.

For Preparation Of Examination You Should Follow The Below Tips

Give yourself enough time to study. Don’t leave it until the last minute.
Organize your study space. Make sure you have enough space to spread your textbooks and notes out
Use flow charts and diagrams
Practice on old exams
Explain your answers to others
Organize study groups with friends
Take regular breaks

Preparation Material

Candidates who are preparing for exam firstly have to select the study material according to the new pattern. Books should be cover the new syllabus and latest exam pattern so you can study from latest and update study materiel. Books are the factor that plays an important role in success of any candidate. Unsolved papers play an important role in written exam.

Consider Exam Pattern

Every exam has their exam pattern. Exam pattern include like duration of exam, number of questions, section of different subject, provision of negative marking or not, exam’s nature (subjective, objective or both). These are the points that the student must have to consider in his mind during his preparation and also during giving exam. It is more important to prepare yourself according to the pattern of exam but not the book. The candidate must think all the things in mind during his study and during giving the exam. Aspirants have to prepare themselves according to the exam pattern not to the books to get good marks

How Can You Write Fast In Exams?

Division Of Subject According To The Time

Candidates have to divide the subject according to time. Good time tables will surely increases the possibility of success in the examination. If candidates create a proper time table that they can easily able to do study of all subjects because without a mannered time table you may not remember to give time to any subject or not able to give proper time to every subject. So, if you want to get success in competitive exam then you have to manage time in a finest way and make sure that you follow the time schedule in routine in a proper manner.

Give Mare Time To Weak Subject

Every subject is important to get success in examination. When you prepare the time table, then it is required to give more time to subject in which you are weak. You also prepare your weak subject by getting tuition.

Improve Speed To Solving Questions

Time is the main phase of the written examination. Speed is importance requirement in exam. Prepare yourself according to exam time. You can test yourself through speed test which are available online. Try to practice the multiple choice questions daily that will surely helpful to improve speed.

Give Proper Time For Revision:

Students must give proper time for revision of every topic of concepts, chapters, formulas and definition. Aspirants should keep revising their chapters within every 2 months during their preparation. The candidates can revise by the help of:

Self Prepared Notes- self notes grow confidence of aspirants and make theirbasics more strong and it will absolutely increase your success in your exam.

Expert Supervision- You can take the advice or supervision of experts it is necessary for any exam preparation. Students must solve previous year papers and some more difficult test papers / sample papers also with the help of the experts. And aspirants must do preparation according to the exam pattern also.

On The Day Of The Test

Arrive at the testing location early enough so that you can get relaxed before the start of the test. But don’t arrive so early that you have time to become anxious
Do not bring family or friends to the examination site. Space is arranged only for applicants and the monitoring staff
You are not permitted to bring books, manuals, notes or pads into the test room.
Calculators and watches with memory capability, electronic paging devices, recording or filming devices, radios, computers, cellular phones, and other mechanical and electronic devices are not permitted in the test room
Be sure to bring two sharpened No. 2 pencils with you.
Be sure to read and follow the instructions given in your scheduling letter about what you need to bring to the test site.
If you should bring any additional materials with you, such as a calculator, a pen, etc., this will be mentioned in your scheduling let
Be sure to bring your scheduling letter and a photo ID that includes your signature with you

In Conclusion: Some Common Sense Suggestions

It is important to use common sense when facing a written test:

Get plenty of sleep the night before and be sure to dress comfortably and eat breakfast
If you are not sure where the test site is, take a drive to the site before the test date
Leave yourself plenty of time to get to the test site just in case there is traffic or you have car problems

Tech Mahindra Sample Placement Papers 2015-2016.

1. The sentences below represent Direct/Indirect speech. From the below options, choose which one is the best example for the mentioned sentence:She told her, “I know where the dog is”

a. She told her that she knew where the dog is.
b. She told her that she knows where the dog was.
c. She told her that she knew where the dog was.
d. She told that she knew where the dog is.

Choose the synonym(Qns 2 & 3):

2. FULSOME:

a. Thorough
b. Trivial
c. Eager
d. Excessive

3. GABBLE:

a. Consume Rapidly
b. Jump around
c. Identify
d. Bring together

4. The boy at the river was not eating _________ food.

a. a
b. nothing
c. any

5. Choose one word which resembles the sentence:Study of skin and skin diseases

a. Orthopaedics
b. Dermatology
c. Gynaecology
d. Endocrinology

6. Rearrange the following to make a meaningful sentence:Which is the third and second sentence in correct order?

1. Except, we all contributed in the beginning days.
2. Manohar has just joined his office, he has been transferred.
3. At first, he could not get hold of the city culture.
4. Chandrapur is basically a rural area.
5. Currently, Manohar feels proud of his partners.
6. Before being transferred he worked in the chandrapur office.
Answer: 4 and 6

7. The paragraph represents jumbled sentences. Arrange the paragraphs in correct order:

a. A pact where a new government is being formed
b. The Liberals and the NDP commented that their plan is to end the reign of Harper Conservative government by coming Monday.
c. If the present one falls apart as a result of lack of confidence
d. The opposition leaders of Canada have signed

1. ADCB
2. DACB
3. DABC
4. ABCD

8.A part of the below mentioned sentence has been underlined. Choose a better word to use, in place of the underlined: Can you open this knot?

a. Break
b. Loose
c. No improvement
d. Untie

(Question 9 -12), write down the antonym

9. Comic

a. Fearful
b. Tragic
c. Painful
d. Emotional

10. Annoy

a. Please
b. Rejoice
c. Admire
d. Reward

11. Hapless

a. Consistent
b. Shaped
c. Cheerful
d. Fortunate

12. Niggardly

a. Generous
B. Stingy
C. Thrifty
D. Frugal

13. Join the following words to make up a meaningful sentence.What is the correct order of these words to be arranged?

1. Suddenly
2. left
3. the
4. He
5. House

A. 12345 ,B. 14235 ,C. 32415, D. 53421

(Qns 14 & 15)Fill the blanks with appropriate words:

14. I can have ____ a pizza __ a chicken dish for lunch.

a. Whether, or
b. As, whereas
c. Either, or

15. ___ my father __ my mother are from Mumbai.

a. Both, and
b. Either, or
c. Both, with

Read the following passage and answer (Qns 16- 19)

At a stage like this in human civilisation, it is of utmost interest that nations’ coarse ignorance towards one another decreases, people should start understanding a bit of histories of other cultures, other countries and the resulting mentality developed. It is really fault of Englishmen because they expected people to run the world as they wanted to, to international as well as political situations. We many a times expect people to be the way we are and because of that nothing is made out of our actual kindness and good intents. This could be corrected, not to be a very wide extent but to a certain limit if we knew global history, even outlines of it, about the conditions, social and political, which have lead the country to shape up as it has currently.

16. Author wants the people of his country to:

a. Read other nation’s policies
b. Have a better perceptive of other countries
c. Not to react with war
d. Have close contacts with all the countries

17. A better understanding among countries:

a. Has always been present
b. There is no need of that
c. Is now needed more than ever
d. Will always remain

18. The character that a country develops is mainly because of its:

a. Mentality
b. Gross Ignorance
c. Socio-Political Conditions
d. Cultural Heritage

19. The fault of Englishmen was that they expected others to react to social and political situations like ________.

a. Everyone
b. Themselves
c. Others
d. Us

20. Find the word that has been spelt correctly:

a. Voguei
B. Equestrain
C. Asspersion
D. Voluptuous

Aptitude Questions:

1. Consider a group of working men. If 1/10th of the workers are absent then work of each person would be increased by.

a. 20%
b. 22.22%
c. 10%
d. 11.11%

2. Consider the following statements,

All members of team A are good tall guys with an average height of 6 feet.
Average of the height of members of team B is lesser than that of team A.
Which could be true among the below options.

a) Every member of team B is shorter than each member of team A.
b) Few members of team B could be over 6 feet.

3.John is supposed to walk from his house to park every morning. One morning, he is in real hurry and wants to save at least 1/3rd of the time. By how much percentage he should increase his
speed.

a. 100%
b. 33%
c. 66%
d. 50%

4. Pointing to the woman in the picture, Govind said, “ Her mother has only one grand child whose mother is my wife”. How is the woman in the picture related to Govind?

a) Sister
b) Wife
c) cousin
d) data inadequate

5. Woman in the picture is told as – Her mother has one only one grand child. Mother of that grand child is Govind’s wife. So woman in the picture is wife of Govind.Anand is the uncle of Bimala,
who is the daughter of Cauvery and Cauvery is the daughter in law of Palani. How is Anand related to Palani?

a) Son
b) son in law
c) Brother
d) newphew

6. Palani’s daughter in law is Cauvery.Cauvery’s daughter is Bimala. Anand is uncle of Bimala. Cauvery and Anand are siblings. Therfore Anand is son of Palani.Pointing to a man, Lakshmi says,
“This man’s son’s sister is my mother-in-law”. How is the Lakshmi’s husband related to the man?

a) son
b) son-in-law
c) grandson
d)nephew

7. A cylinder of diameter 14 and height 7 is converted into a cone of radius 6. Now, what could be the percentage height of the new shape ?

a. 308%
b. 32%
c. 2150%
d. 215%

8. Find the largest number which gives out reminders 2 and 5 when used to divide 80 and 122.

a. 19
b. 17
c. 13
d. infinite number of solutions

9. Find the ratio of the volumes of a sphere and cone of same radius. Also the height of the cone is twice its radius.

a. 3 : 1
b. 4 : 3
c. 4 : 1
d. 2 : 1

10. Find the missing number in the sequence 504 , _ , 990, 1320, 1716

a. 720
b. 1000
c. 721
d. 790

11.The perimeter of a square and a rectangle is the same. If the rectangle is 12 cms. by 10 cms., then by what percentage is the area of the square more than that of the rectangle?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 5/6
d) 1/2

12. Capacity of a cylindrical vessel is 25,872 litres. If the height of the cylinder is 200% more than the radius of its base, what is the area of the base in square cms?

a) 336
b) 1232
c) 616
d) cannot be determined

13. If the radius of a circle is increased by 12%, then the area of the circle

a) decreases by 25.44%
b) increases by 25.44%
c) no change in area
d) decreases by 12%

14. Aravamudhan, Balakrishnan and Chinnan work in a developing software company in starting level positions. However their salaries are different. Aravamudhan’s salary to Balakrishnan’s salary and Balakrishnan’s salary to Chinnan’s salary are in the ratio 4:3. If the total salary of all the three employees is Rs.29230, what is the salary of Chinnan?

a) Rs.12640
b) Rs.9480
c) Rs.7110
d) Rs.8660

15. Three cricket players -- Ramesh, Suresh and Ganesh play for three different cricket Teams – Haryana, Delhi and Rajasthan respectively. Ramesh was born in Chennai but brought up in Karnal,Haryana. Suresh was born in Delhi and brought up in Delhi. Ganesh’s fore-fathers were from Madurai but settled in Rajasthan. All the three participated in a cricket tournament. Ramesh’s runs to Suresh’s runs and Suresh’s runs to Ganesh’s runs are in the ratio 5:7. If the total runs scored by all the three players in the tournament is 327, find the total runs scored by Suresh in the tournament?

a) 95
b) 85
c) 65
d) 105

Technical Interview Questions:

State the different types of integration testing.
RAM vs ROM?
What do you mean by multi-threading and multi-tasking?
Explain the term normalization.
What is the difference between request processor and request dispatcher?
Explain the difference between trigger and stored procedure.
What are the types of networks?
What is inheritance?
What is the difference between Array and Array list?

Friday, September 23, 2016

वाहन का पंजीकरण करवाने READ CAREFULLY BEFORE THE REJISTRATION OF VEHICLES

अब वाहन का पंजीकरण करवाने के लिए मालिक को वाहन के साथ फोटो खिंचवाना होगा। नए नियमों के मुताबिक अब मालिक की फोटो के बिना वाहन का पंजीकरण नहीं होगा। हालांकि इससे पहले नए वाहन की रजिस्ट्रेशन बिल के आधार पर होती थी। इसके चलते वाहनों के पंजीकरण की प्रक्रिया में पारदर्शिता को लेकर संशय बना रहता था।

लेकिन अब सुरक्षा की दृष्टि के मद्देनजर नए नियम लागू किए गए हैं। वाहन के पंजीकरण में पारदर्शिता लाने के लिए एसडीएम ऊना पृथीपाल सिंह ने आरएलए शाखा को इस बाबत निर्देश जारी किए हैं। वाहनों का पंजीकरण करवाते समय अब वाहन मालिकों को वाहन का पंजीकरण करवाने के लिए अपनी एक तस्वीर भी कार्यालय में जमा करवानी होगी।

इसके बिना आरएलए शाखा में वाहन का पंजीकरण नहीं होगा। यदि कोई व्यक्ति इसके बाद अपना वाहन किसी अन्य व्यक्ति को बेचता है तो उस समय भी वाहन के पुराने मालिक व नए मालिक की तस्वीर भी नए पंजीकरण के साथ जमा करवाना अनिवार्य होगा। नए नियमों के अनुसार वाहन मालिक व उसके द्वारा खरीदे गए वाहन की तस्वीर फाइल में लगी होनी चाहिए, जिससे वाहन मालिक की आसानी से पहचान हो सके।

वाहन चोरी की घटनाओं में भी इससे लाभ मिलेगा। साथ ही नए खरीदे वाहन पर बाकायदा अस्थाई नंबर भी अंकित होना चाहिए। निदेशक परिवहन विभाग के निदेशक सुनील चौधरी ने बताया कि समय-समय पर केंद्र सरकार की ओर से डायरेक्शन आती रहती है। ऐसे में कई जिलों में इसे लागू किया गया है। इससे पारदर्शिता बनी रहेगी।